Hi, In one of the mark schemes of a past paper, the examiner uses the following result to derive the C.I using the F-distribution (see attached). Couldn't we also obtain F(10,8,97.5%) from 1/(F(10,8,2.5%) i.e. 1/4.295? Much appreciated, A
No, as 1/(F(10,8,2.5%) is the lower value for an F(8,10) distribution. Whereas you want both the tails of the F(10,8) distribution.
