What is the difference between Q 15.10 and Q 15.12? Why do we have to calculate probability using standard normal distribution in Q 15.12 while we don't do so for Q 15.10?
There is Qs 15.12.. A lump sum of $14,000 will be invested at time 0 for 4 years at an annual rate of interest i . The interest rate, once determined, will be the same in each of the four years. 1+ i has a log-normal distribution with mean 1.05 and variance 0.007. Calculate the probability that the investment will accumulate to more than $20,000 in 4 years’ time.
I am not sure that is the reason...when u go to Part 4 Qs and As, there are problems which are similar to Q 15.10, but solved by standardizing..
Apologies, I was looking at 2015 notes not 2016. The difference is that in Q15.10 we are given the \(\mu\) and the \(\sigma^2\) whereas in Q15.12 we are given the mean and variance. Hence in Q15.12 you have to solve the equations to get the \(\mu\) and the \(\sigma^2\).