Hi, In some materials I have seen the best estimate basis described as having an equal probability of over or under-estimating the value of the liabilities. This suggests that given a distribution of liability values, we would take the median value. In work context I feel like I have used a mean value for the best estimate (I could be wrong!) I also feel like I remember reading that the expectation (ie. mean) of the distribution is appropriate for best estimate. In most circumstances these will be essentially the same as we usually assume a normal distribution or at least a not-particularly-skew distribution. But is one technically correct? or do we not recognise the distinction?