I did not understand the below points made in the examiner solution.
"It is possible that the shareholder has come to an agreement that the NPF will charge the WPF 0.9% and all charges associated with UWP B will be charged to the NPF, thus the charges to asset shares equal the charges incurred by the WPF. But the fund is 90:10, so if the WPF is charged the underlying costs together with the shareholder transfers, then there will be a mismatch between costs and charges."
It seems they are discussing a mismatch of expenses and charges but it's not clear to me. They talk about asset shares of UWP B product in the WPF, the WPF itself and the NPF. Can you please explain what's being charged to whom and where we are referring to charges and expenses/costs?
"It is possible that the shareholder has come to an agreement that the NPF will charge the WPF 0.9% and all charges associated with UWP B will be charged to the NPF, thus the charges to asset shares equal the charges incurred by the WPF. But the fund is 90:10, so if the WPF is charged the underlying costs together with the shareholder transfers, then there will be a mismatch between costs and charges."
It seems they are discussing a mismatch of expenses and charges but it's not clear to me. They talk about asset shares of UWP B product in the WPF, the WPF itself and the NPF. Can you please explain what's being charged to whom and where we are referring to charges and expenses/costs?