Chapter 15 - Analysis of surplus

Discussion in 'SA2' started by rlsrachaellouisesmith, Jan 20, 2024.

  1. rlsrachaellouisesmith

    rlsrachaellouisesmith Ton up Member

    Hi

    I would like to check my understanding of the impact of NB on surplus arising.

    In a simplified approach to surplus Assets - Liabilities (BEL only) (as described in the notes).
    Assets - increase by assets actually accrued during the period less liability cashflows expected to be paid out on new policies during the period
    --> it might be that if NB is added before economic variances are applied to IF business then we would use the expected assets to be accrued during the period
    --> liability cashflows expected to be paid out are included rather than actuals because the non-economic variances are applied after the NB is added, however would also be possible for the actual liability cashflows to be used here, IF the NB was added after non-economic variances had been applied to IF business.
    Liabilities - increase by the BEL (as at valn date) for these new IF policies at end of period

    However if we add in SCR and RM then:
    Assets - as above plus SCR and RM expected to be released over the intravaluation period
    --> not sure if this would be SCR and RM actually released or expected to be released.
    --> I think it might be what is actually released in terms of asset changes but what is expected to be released wrt liabilities. Actual changes wrt liabilities would be captured in the non-economic variance item.
    Liabilities - as above plus increase in the RM and SCR (as at valn date) for IF policies at end of period.

    Thank you,

    Rachael

    PS lots of detail I know but just trying to check my understanding of the possible approach in the notes so that I can understand the impact of changing the order. Thank you.
     
    Last edited: Jan 20, 2024
  2. rlsrachaellouisesmith

    rlsrachaellouisesmith Ton up Member

    Realised this thread should link to Chapter 15 - sorry.

    I have a few more questions.

    1) On page 9 of chapter 15 it states that the 4th step in the possible approach is to roll forward to the new valuation date using actual investment return data for the inter-valuation period. On page 6 it states that the economic variance through investment return can be split into 5 different items (bullet points below). I wonder how we would isolate each of these in the roll forward, that is what change would we have to make in the model:
    • investment return expected vs discount rate used in liability valuation (expected assets)
    • investment return actual vs investment return expected (expected assets)
    • change in asset mix
      • I think the change needed would be to update the actual asset mix and providing assumptions (returns/correlations) for these new assets are included within the model then this will be the update required to isolate
    • spread movement vs MA/VA assumed in liability valuation
    • mismatch surplus
    2) If we are defining surplus such that liabilities include the RM then there are 3 changes to set out on page 14 that could cause a change in the RM requirements from the valuation date onwards. Two of these not in the Core reading but in the acted notes are:
    • changes in the size of the SCR component --> is it correct that this could be anything that impacts the size of non-hedgeable risks or calculation of the SCR methodology
    • changes in the run off of SCR --> this could be anything that changes to the pattern of the non-hedgeable risk profile or the calculation of the SCR methodology
    Thank you,

    Rachael
     
  3. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    It feels like you might be overcomplicating this.

    Assets change by cashflows into the company, minus cashflows out of the company, plus investment earnings.
    So if there is new business written, assets will increase by new premiums in, minus expenses incurred on the new business, minus any claims that happen on that business in the period between the new business being written and the valuation date, plus investment earnings on the overall new business net cashflows up to the valuation date.

    Liabilities change by the additional liabilities that need to be set up in relation to the new business.

    If the analysis is being done on a Solvency II basis and if we are defining 'surplus' as {assets - TP - SCR}, then 'additional liabilities' (in the previous sentence) would comprise TP + SCR.
     
  4. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Yes, although might need to clarify what you mean by 'calculation of the SCR methodology', eg switching between IM and SF could make a difference, as could changing the stress applied if using an IM.
     
  5. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    It is relatively unlikely that an insurer would separate the change out into all five of those distinction items, they are just reasons illustrating why surplus relating to investment return might arise. There are also overlaps between some of the items you have listed.

    For each step, we project forwards on one aspect that we are comparing, then again on the second aspect, and take the difference.

    So for the points here:
    - keeping the asset mix as it is at the start of the year, project forwards at the discount rate used in the valuation
    - repeat using the company's best estimate investment returns (difference relative to previous step gives the first item of your list)
    - repeat using the actual investment returns achieved (difference relative to previous step gives the second item)
    - repeat the previous step, but now using the new asset mix (difference relative to previous step gives the third item)

    That would then complete the investment conditions part of the analysis, as we are now fully on 'actual' at the end period valuation.

    In doing the above, we would have to consider whether or not to include the impact of changes in future expected economic assumptions (eg changes in interest rates impacting liability discount rates) as part of this modelling, or analyse them separately (as noted in the course notes). It makes sense to consider them together where there is a close relationship, eg interest rates increasing (thus reducing liabilities) would be aligned with falls in the value of bonds (thus reducing assets) over the analysis period.

    Any impact relating to the actual return on corporate bonds relative to what has been assumed in the valuation (eg under Solvency II, including any MA/VA that has been permitted) is just a sub-component of the more general 'actual vs expected' step - so could be analysed separately if needed by only modelling that particular aspect.

    In terms of mismatching, that's simply why investment surplus arises on the assets backing liabilities. If assets and liabilities were perfectly matched, there would be no surplus arising whatever happened to investment conditions, as they would both move exactly in line (eg unit reserves and the underlying assets in the unit funds). If the insurer wanted to isolate the impact of mismatching on a particular product line, it would just model the impact of the change on that line in isolation.
     
  6. rlsrachaellouisesmith

    rlsrachaellouisesmith Ton up Member

    I definitely was overcomplicating.

    Thank you, that makes much more sense now.
     
  7. rlsrachaellouisesmith

    rlsrachaellouisesmith Ton up Member

    My confusion started as one of the flash cards says may be separately identified. But as you said, they are more likely reasons for the change rather than all being separately identifiable and the key is they may overlap!

    Thank you
     
    Last edited: Feb 3, 2024
  8. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Yes, one or a subset of that list might be 'separately identified' in the analysis, but they don't necessarily together add up to the whole.
     
    rlsrachaellouisesmith likes this.

Share This Page