I am trying to understand which one is more likely to be reduced first between reducing regular bonuses and reducing terminal bonuses eg after equity market fall. Do with-profits funds typically reduce the terminal bonus as the first and most used of the 2 options?
I appreciate that both can be done simultaneously and that smoothing will be involved but I want to understand which one is more likely to be used first or if we were trying to choose only one of them.
This will help deepen my understanding. It may also help me when structuring my answers.
I appreciate that both can be done simultaneously and that smoothing will be involved but I want to understand which one is more likely to be used first or if we were trying to choose only one of them.
This will help deepen my understanding. It may also help me when structuring my answers.