singingmyblues
Active Member
I am just wondering how the PV of liabilities is calculated? Looks like real cashflow and interest rate is used, so effectively 1.5m *a:<40>@r. But I don't know how this is converted to real values? The (1+i)^0.5 *1.025^-1 part implies we accumulate half year and divide by inflation. But doesn't a:<40> mean the cashflows are half year later?