The question is on page 3 and the answer is given on page 16.
In the answer to (ii), it says that since the risk-free rate is included, the efficient frontier is a straight line, which I agree. But it also says that because it is a straight line, the returns on any efficient portfolio are perfectly correlated with those of the market, hence rho_ZM = 1. I do not understand this latter part, do we know for sure that as long as the efficient frontier is a straight line, there is a perfect correlation of the efficient portfolio and the market portfolio? And even if there is a perfect correlation, it could be either +1 or (-1), so I do not fully get what is meant here.
In the answer to (ii), it says that since the risk-free rate is included, the efficient frontier is a straight line, which I agree. But it also says that because it is a straight line, the returns on any efficient portfolio are perfectly correlated with those of the market, hence rho_ZM = 1. I do not understand this latter part, do we know for sure that as long as the efficient frontier is a straight line, there is a perfect correlation of the efficient portfolio and the market portfolio? And even if there is a perfect correlation, it could be either +1 or (-1), so I do not fully get what is meant here.