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Commutations (Core Reading Q)

R

RedCoat

Member
On page 13 of Chapter 12, in the CMP it says:

"Another possibility is for the insurer to commute any outwards reinsurance contracts prior to it commuting the inwards contracts.

This ensures that the insurer does not lose the benefit of any reinsurance recoveries, which may be significant, before it starts to commute its inwards business."

I'm confused - does the second sentence not contradict the first? In my mind, if the insurer commutes their outwards RI first then they DO lose the benefit of recoveries on their yet-to-be-commuted inwards business? E.g. if I have one commercial property left on my book that I plan to commute, but I first commute the 80% QS I have in place covering this. Then a claim comes in, I'm now liable for all of it, making no recoveries? Or am I misinterpreting completely.

Thanks!
 
Think of a commutation as a definite payment now instead of a possible payment (recovery) later. It makes more sense if you think about non-prop.
 
Am I right in saying that "reinsurance recoveries" alludes to the commutation settlement rather than claims?

If so, I think it boils down to this: If the insurer first commutes an inward insurance policy (at full expected cost and then some), then it is protecting itself but also protecting the reinsurer from claims. So the reinsurer then has no incentive to commute the reinsurance at good terms.

Is that right?
 
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