Would like to check my understanding on effective tax on dividend income for BLAGAB.
Suppose company receives 10 dividend income, and increase the p/h account value by 5 say, then (ideally) shareholder's share of dividend would also be calculated out to be 5, so that
BLAGAB trade profit +10 - 5 = +5 BUT
I-E no change
SP +5 - 5 = +0 no change --> PTP no change
So effective tax (ideally) on dividend income allocated to BLAGAB is 0%?
Also, if we look from the trade profit pov then effectively s/h share of dividend income is not part of trade profit, but p/h share is to offset the same increase in p/h liabilities - this is what the course notes mean by "retaining elements of dividends in the BLAGAB trade profit which are included in the assets which support policyholder liabilities"? (p20 ch7 CMP 2020)
Thanks for any replies.
Last edited by a moderator: Jul 14, 2020