F
Fortunate
Member
May you please help me understand these 2 statements on solvency capital requirements:
page 4 - " Some countries use a different approach... This has the disadvantages that: ... solvency capital requirements are not risk-based, making it difficult to ensure that sufficient security is provided to policyholders."
and
page 8 - "As explained in the previous section: The SCR under Solvency II is a risk-based capital measure."
Does it mean SCR is not risk-based if provisions have been calculated on a prudent basis, but they become risk-based if provisions are calculated on a best estimate basis (eg under Solvency II)?
page 4 - " Some countries use a different approach... This has the disadvantages that: ... solvency capital requirements are not risk-based, making it difficult to ensure that sufficient security is provided to policyholders."
and
page 8 - "As explained in the previous section: The SCR under Solvency II is a risk-based capital measure."
Does it mean SCR is not risk-based if provisions have been calculated on a prudent basis, but they become risk-based if provisions are calculated on a best estimate basis (eg under Solvency II)?