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Sept 2018 Q1

S

Sinead_D

Member
Hi, This question asks:
'Suggest possible reasons why the payout from a with profits policy might be different from the policy’s asset share.'

In the examiner's report it says that MVAs are not applicable here. Why is this? I understand that MVAs apply only on accumulating with-profits contracts but the question doesn't state whether the policy is accumulating or not, just that its with profits.

Thanks
 
Hi Sinead

Good question! I think the answer to this is that an MVA wouldn’t be a reason to explain why a with-profits payout might be different from the policy's asset share (as applying an MVA will bring payout closer to asset share). I don’t think that the examiners are saying that an MVA couldn’t actually be applied to the WP policy.

Hope this clears it up
Thanks
Lynn
 
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