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Q&A Bank Part 1 Q1.12(i)

D

DMF

Member
Hi,

If I am not mistaken, when working out the likelihood function you multiply the function for each x in the sample - e.g. the solution 1.14 (i) multiplies the function for eact t in the sample. (I am ignoring constants as the likelihood function is used to determine the posterior).

However, in the solution for Q1.12(i) the binomial distribution is not multiplied out for the sample of n. Why is that?

Thanks
 
Last edited by a moderator:
A single binomial distribution already contains a sample of n iid Bernoulli trials.

For the situation described one binomial X~Bin(20,p) gives the likelihood.
 
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