In this question, why do we integrate from 0 to y/2 and why not -infinity to y/2. Normal distribution ranges from -infinity to infinity. What wrong am I thinking? Help. Thanks.
Ohhhh! Value from \( -\infty \) to 0 is constant(0.5) so derivative must be zero. That gives valuation before derivative is \( -\infty \) to y/2 and after derivative is from 0 to y/2.
Sorry to cause confusion. We should integrate from minus infinity to y/2. We'll put a note in the corrections document on the website. (Note that this question is Q1.23 in the 2015 CMP.)
Hi, could someone break down the use of Leibnitz's formula here for differentiating the integrating (pg3 Tables)
b(y) = 1/2y So b'(y) = 1/2 a(y) = -infinity So a'(y) = 0 then we just need f[b(y),y)which is we take f(x,y) and replace x with 1/2y
The part I couldn't figure was the 3rd term in the formula. How is it 0? How do differentiate that exponential term?
