R
r_v.s
Member
In the additional reading on credit derivatives it says on of the reasons why a firm would sell a CDS is
"the spread over risk free that can be obtained through securities issued by the entity is lower than that available by entering into the CDS"
Would please explain?

"the spread over risk free that can be obtained through securities issued by the entity is lower than that available by entering into the CDS"
Would please explain?