IAI - May 2012

Discussion in 'CT3' started by Debjit Das Gupta, Oct 28, 2013.

  1. I couldn't understand the solution to part (b) of Q.7. The main problem I faced was in the portion before the likelihood function was calculated.
     
  2. bapan

    bapan Ton up Member

    Debjit

    Can you point out the step which is not clear?
     
  3. bapan

    bapan Ton up Member

    Debjit

    In this scenario you are told that you do not know X1, X2 ... but only whether Xi = 0 or Xi > 0.

    Step 1: You define the new random variables Y1, Y2 , .... These Yi-s can take one of only two values 0 or 1

    Since the likelihood will be based on probabilities of Yi-s,

    Step 2: Compute P(Yi = 0) and P(Yi = 1). Note the sum of the two probabilities has to be 1.

    Step 3: Set up the likelihood function.

    If you are confused with how the likelihood function is written, you can check one of two things:

    a. For each factor within the likelihood function, plug in and observe what happens if you have Yi = 0 or Yi =1. Do you get the correct probabilities?

    b. Revise the section on how to write the likelihood function if the distribution of the underlying random variables is Bernoulli with probability of success p = 1 - exp(-lambda).

    Does this help?
     
    Last edited: Oct 29, 2013
  4. I get it now! I just couldn't recall the poisson-binomial approximation. Thanks a lot! ::)
     
  5. bapan

    bapan Ton up Member

    You are welcome !

    Not sure I got the last part of your comment 'Poisson-Binomial approximation' ... this question has nothing to do with that !
     
  6. Sorry! Misprint! I meant Poisson-Bernoulli. :p
     
  7. bapan

    bapan Ton up Member

    Again this question has nothing to do with Poisson-Bernoulli approximation.

    I suggest that you re-read the question and solution.
     

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