hey guys,
So I am trying to solve Q3.14 part i.
I was trying at first by myself. So I just integrated the given f(x) in the questions from 0 to infinity and equating it to 1. But I got stuck and could not go forward. I looked at the solution. I cant understand how they solved it.
How did they get the equation after the first sentence - "The cumulative distribution function is"?
Thanks.
* Edit 1: So I just turned back few pages and on page 9 it says that you can only integrate from -inf to x for cont rand var.
Last edited by a moderator: Jul 11, 2013