Hi,
I am reading the texts on page 15 of Chapter 9, and the following texts got me a bit confused:
"Compared with freehold investment, a leasehold interest is of a fixed term and provides a higher initial rental yield and a capital loss if the lease is held to the termination date. "
And later on there is explanation given on the capital loss part:
"A capital loss occurs if the lease is held to the termination date as the lease has no value at this point because the leaseholder has no interest left in the property."
I find this a bit difficult to understand, and I have the following questions:
I am reading the texts on page 15 of Chapter 9, and the following texts got me a bit confused:
"Compared with freehold investment, a leasehold interest is of a fixed term and provides a higher initial rental yield and a capital loss if the lease is held to the termination date. "
And later on there is explanation given on the capital loss part:
"A capital loss occurs if the lease is held to the termination date as the lease has no value at this point because the leaseholder has no interest left in the property."
I find this a bit difficult to understand, and I have the following questions:
- Why does leasehold come with higher initial rental yield (is this by convention)?
- And why is there this capital loss (I find it natural that the lease will bear no value if held to termination, but I fail to understand why this would lead to a capital loss, as I find it natural that after the lease period is over, there is no value left)