Rajat gupta
Ton up Member
Hi All,
I have a question on the solution to the above question. How can asset share become more negative (if initially negative), if we achieve "
Actual investment returns much higher than the best estimate rate
used in the previous projection."
Can somebody please explain on above?
Regards,
Rajat
I have a question on the solution to the above question. How can asset share become more negative (if initially negative), if we achieve "
Actual investment returns much higher than the best estimate rate
used in the previous projection."
Can somebody please explain on above?
Regards,
Rajat