Appreciate the response, however I don't think I understand your explanation, or else, from what I understood I have to respectfully disagree with the explanation.
It is quite clear computationally, that the limit density ratio spits out an infinite value thereby implying ~Gamma(alpha,lamda) has fatter tails. That's not the problem! My question is why does this contradict the explanation provided in the Hazard rate discussion where for alpha>1, gamma distributions has a thinner tail than if alpha=1 (which is the equivalent of the exponential distribution ~Exp(lamda)). 16.5 is an ACTED question and not a past-exam question, so I would appreciate a response on the logic behind this question and why it contradicts (if this contradiction is in fact real?) with the Hazard rate discussion on Page 28.
Further to your explanation, my disagreement is as follows: Firstly, we are looking at limiting density ratios which are always going to be non-negative irrespective of alpha greater or less than one (they are ratios of PDFs which are always non-negative), so not sure what you are trying to say here. Secondly, this ratio can never go to negative infinity (for the same reason above), which makes it harder to really get at what you are trying to explain here.
Thanks very much again