• We are pleased to announce that the winner of our Feedback Prize Draw for the Winter 2024-25 session and winning £150 of gift vouchers is Zhao Liang Tay. Congratulations to Zhao Liang. If you fancy winning £150 worth of gift vouchers (from a major UK store) for the Summer 2025 exam sitting for just a few minutes of your time throughout the session, please see our website at https://www.acted.co.uk/further-info.html?pat=feedback#feedback-prize for more information on how you can make sure your name is included in the draw at the end of the session.
  • Please be advised that the SP1, SP5 and SP7 X1 deadline is the 14th July and not the 17th June as first stated. Please accept out apologies for any confusion caused.

A 2015 Q10 part ii

J

jonathans

Member
if claims inflation is 2% per year, I don't need to inflate the cost to the mid point of when I think claims will be paid?

Thanks!
 
For Accident Year data to policy year premium rating, we adjust to mid-point afwmter making uniform pattern assumptions.

But, in this question data is sorted policy year and rate is also for a policy year.
So, with 'all other factors being constant' assumption - you can make it by differencing policy year in years.
 
For Accident Year data to policy year premium rating, we adjust to mid-point afwmter making uniform pattern assumptions.

But, in this question data is sorted policy year and rate is also for a policy year.
So, with 'all other factors being constant' assumption - you can make it by differencing policy year in years.

I'm sorry but I didn't understand your answer :(
 
I will try to write in different way:-

If you expect particular claims payment delay, say, 'x' from policy inception, and assumed patterns are similar. Policy year after y years will also have claims payment delay from policy inception 'x'. So, basically inflation needed for y years. No need for mid-point, this is applicable to any earning, incurring, paying pattern as long as remains same.

Difference between claims payment date for policy year n and policy year m(where m>n) is m-n, when the pattern of earning, incurring and paying is same for all years.
That is why 1.02^(5-1) is used to make 1st policy year value to as-at 5th and so for other years.
 
Back
Top