E
Edwin
Member
I don't understand why the Examiner's report says the derivative pays off after two down moves, since it is possible for S2 < S0 after an up move and a down move.
e.g
let S0 =1
u = 1.25, d = 0.6
After an up move and a down move, S2 = 0.75 < S0???
Am I missing something?....Thanks.
e.g
let S0 =1
u = 1.25, d = 0.6
After an up move and a down move, S2 = 0.75 < S0???
Am I missing something?....Thanks.
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