C
Chaapa
Member
Hello
I am just a little confused with the tax allowance in pricing.
Assume that a life insurance company only has a BLAGAB fund.
Suppose the company is in XSI position and wants to price a term assurance product (which results in more E than I).
If the company prices the product on XSE basis then does it mean that
a) the company does not allow for the payment of tax in its pricing and also does not allow for any expense relief? If this is the case then should that result in more attractive premium rates as no tax has been allowed and this outweighs the higher expenses allowed for due to no expense relief?
or does it mean
b) the company does allow for the payment of tax in its pricing (since it will have to pay tax as it is in an overall XSI position) but does not allow for any expense relief?
Suppose the company is in XSE position and wants to price a savings contract. As it is overall XSE it will have to use gross assumptions to price the savings contract. Should this mean that the savings contract is more attractive to consumers than a similar contract priced on an XSI basis by some other company (as no tax payment is taken into account)?
Please could someone clarify the above.
Thank you in advance.
I am just a little confused with the tax allowance in pricing.
Assume that a life insurance company only has a BLAGAB fund.
Suppose the company is in XSI position and wants to price a term assurance product (which results in more E than I).
If the company prices the product on XSE basis then does it mean that
a) the company does not allow for the payment of tax in its pricing and also does not allow for any expense relief? If this is the case then should that result in more attractive premium rates as no tax has been allowed and this outweighs the higher expenses allowed for due to no expense relief?
or does it mean
b) the company does allow for the payment of tax in its pricing (since it will have to pay tax as it is in an overall XSI position) but does not allow for any expense relief?
Suppose the company is in XSE position and wants to price a savings contract. As it is overall XSE it will have to use gross assumptions to price the savings contract. Should this mean that the savings contract is more attractive to consumers than a similar contract priced on an XSI basis by some other company (as no tax payment is taken into account)?
Please could someone clarify the above.
Thank you in advance.